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Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:

hostname Gateway
interface FastEthernet 0/0
ip address
no shutdown
interface FastEthernet 0/1
ip address
no shutdown
interface Serial 0/0
ip address
no shutdown
ip route

What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)


A.    The default route should have a next hop address of
B.    Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C.    The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D.    The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E.    Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.

Answer: DE

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the debug command?


A.    The output represents normal OSPF operation.
B.    The interfaces of two OSPF routers connected to the Border router are in the same subnet.
C.    The OSPF router connected to interface Serial0/1 has NOT formed a neighbor relationship with the Border router.
D.    A router is connected to interface Serial0/3 of the Border router. The OSPF router ID of the connected router is the IP address of the connected interface.

Answer: C

Refer to the output from the show running-config command in the exhibit. What should the administrator do to allow the workstations connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to obtain an IP address?


A.    Apply access-group 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0.
B.    Add access-list 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C.    Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to
D.    Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration.

Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?


A.    HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B.    The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C.    The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D.    The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E.    The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

Answer: D

Which two data integrity algorithms are commonly used in VPN solutions? (Choose two.)

A.    DH1
B.    DH2
C.    HMAC-MD5
D.    HMAC-SHA-1
E.    RSA

Answer: CD

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
B.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
network infrastructure.
C.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same
network infrastructure.
D.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing
their size.
E.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing
their size.
F.    VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to
the same broadcast domain.
G.    Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Answer: ACD

Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

A.    enable dual-stack routing
B.    configure IPv6 directly
C.    configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
D.    use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E.    statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
F.    use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

Answer: ACD

What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

A.    NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
B.    NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
C.    NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
D.    Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
E.    NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
F.    NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Answer: BF

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

A.    802.3ad
B.    802.1w
C.    802.1D
D.    802.1Q

Answer: D

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

A.    The command is rejected.
B.    The port turns amber.
C.    The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
D.    The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Answer: C

When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command can help you to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

A.    show ip access-lists
B.    show access-lists
C.    show interface
D.    show ip interface
E.    list ip interface

Answer: D

Which name describes an IPv6 host-enabled tunneling technique that uses IPv4 UDP, does not require dedicated gateway tunnels, and can pass through existing IPv4 NAT gateways?

A.    manual 6to4
B.    dual stack
C.    dynamic
D.    Teredo

Answer: D

Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to send updates?

A.    static
B.    RIPng
C.    OSPFv3
D.    IS-IS for IPv6

Answer: B

On which options are standard access lists based?

A.    destination address and wildcard mask
B.    destination address and subnet mask
C.    source address and subnet mask
D.    source address and wildcard mask

Answer: D

Which device might be installed at a branch office to enable and manage an IPsec site-to-site VPN?

A.    Cisco IOS IPsec/SSL VPN Client
B.    Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
C.    Cisco VPN Client
D.    ISDN terminal adapter

Answer: B

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

A.    ping address
B.    tracert address
C.    traceroute address
D.    arp address

Answer: A

When using the CLI, which banner displays a message upon every connection that is made into
the router?

A.    exec
B.    login
C.    motd
D.    slip-ppp

Answer: C

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

A.    FF02::1
B.    FF02::2
C.    FF02::3
D.    FF02::4

Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATUS=ACTIVE refer to in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?


A.    The PVC is experiencing congestion.
B.    The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.
C.    The router is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.
D.    The router is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.

Answer: B

The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)


A.    The command establishes a static route.
B.    The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for
C.    Traffic for network is forwarded to
D.    Traffic for all networks is forwarded to
E.    This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
F.    Traffic for network is forwarded to the network.

Answer: AC

A network administrator would like to implement NAT in the network shown in the graphic to allow inside hosts to use a private addressing scheme. Where should NAT be configured?


A.    Corporate router
B.    Engineering router
C.    Sales router
D.    all routers
E.    all routers and switches

Answer: A

A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?

A.    Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
B.    Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
C.    Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D.    Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.

Answer: C

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address

A.    ::1
B.    ::
C.    2000::/3
D.    0::/10

Answer: A

The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme best defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

A. subnetted with mask
B. subnetted with mask
C. subnetted with mask
D. subnetted with mask
E. subnetted with mask

Answer: D

Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group address that is used by RIPng as the destination address for RIP updates?

A.    FF02::6
B.    FF02::9
C.    FF05::101
D.    FF02::A

Answer: B

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